Rotator Cuff Tear — ABOS Oral Boards Preparation
What examiners expect and how to prepare
Clinical Scenario
A 55-year-old right-hand-dominant male commercial painter presents to your office with a 4-month history of progressive right shoulder pain and weakness. He initially noticed difficulty reaching overhead and night pain that disrupts sleep. He denies any acute injury but does a significant amount of overhead work. He tried a 6-week course of physical therapy with some improvement in pain but persistent weakness. He has no prior shoulder surgery and no medical comorbidities besides hypertension. On exam, active forward elevation is to 140 degrees (170 on the left). External rotation strength is 4/5 compared to 5/5 on the left. Jobe test (empty can) produces pain and weakness. He has a positive lag sign. Hornblower sign is negative. There is no significant atrophy of the supraspinatus or infraspinatus fossae.
MRI of the right shoulder with intra-articular contrast shows a full-thickness tear of the supraspinatus tendon measuring 2.5 cm in the anteroposterior dimension with 1.5 cm of retraction to the level of the glenoid face. There is Grade 1 fatty infiltration of the supraspinatus (Goutallier). The infraspinatus and subscapularis are intact. The long head of the biceps tendon is subluxated medially. The acromion is Type II (Bigliani). There is moderate subacromial bursitis.
After discussion of options, you performed arthroscopic rotator cuff repair with suture bridge technique (double-row equivalent) along with biceps tenodesis and subacromial decompression. The tendon quality was good, and the repair was performed without excessive tension. Post-operatively, the patient was placed in an abduction sling for 6 weeks with pendulum exercises only, followed by progressive strengthening.
What Examiners Look For
- Data gathering: Functional demands (overhead worker), response to conservative treatment, and duration of symptoms all inform decision-making.
- Diagnosis: MRI interpretation — tear size, retraction, fatty infiltration, and muscle quality. What is the significance of each?
- Treatment plan: Why surgical repair now? What non-operative factors did you exhaust? What would make this tear irreparable?
- Technical skill: Single-row versus double-row versus suture bridge — describe the biomechanical rationale for your chosen construct.
- Indications: Why did you tenotomize/tenodese the biceps? What was your indication for subacromial decompression?
- Complications: What is the re-tear rate for this tear size? How do you counsel the patient about returning to overhead work?
- Outcomes: What is your rehabilitation protocol? When do you allow return to full work duties for a laborer?
Common Pitfalls
- Not addressing conservative management first — examiners will ask what therapy entailed and why it failed.
- Failing to assess fatty infiltration and its prognostic significance — Goutallier grade 3-4 dramatically affects repairability.
- Ignoring the biceps pathology — a subluxated or torn biceps needs to be addressed and your reasoning explained.
- Describing an overly aggressive rehabilitation protocol — early passive motion is accepted, but early active use risks re-tear.
- Not knowing the difference between partial and full-thickness tears and the management algorithm for each.
Key Classifications
Related Scenarios
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